>Assuming that the idea of private property ownership exists, I can't think of any other coherent place for the profits to go, other than the owner.
You are begging the question.
You start out with the assumption that all benefits accrue to the owner and then repeatedly conclude that the owner should receive all benefits (after distributing a "fair share" to everyone else [of which there is curiously still "extra share" available for the owner {who likely didn't contribute direct effort to help achieve the shares}]).
A business is not an "income-generating asset", it's a collection of individuals and policies that cooperate to achieve some end. Business as income-generating asset is a classic rent-seeker fallacy (although some may get away with it).
You are begging the question.
You start out with the assumption that all benefits accrue to the owner and then repeatedly conclude that the owner should receive all benefits (after distributing a "fair share" to everyone else [of which there is curiously still "extra share" available for the owner {who likely didn't contribute direct effort to help achieve the shares}]).
A business is not an "income-generating asset", it's a collection of individuals and policies that cooperate to achieve some end. Business as income-generating asset is a classic rent-seeker fallacy (although some may get away with it).