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They have editorial discretion. I'd be curious to know what the "acceptance rate", so to speak is... I know for a fact that a couple I know was rejected specifically because one of them was undergoing gender reassignment and the NYT didn't know which personal (gender) pronoun to use for him.


The NYT said they rejected it for that reason, or that is what you friend assumed to be the case?


AP StyleBook says to use the gender the individual identifies as. Thus why all the news media now reports on Chelsea Manning.


Maybe a different section would have printed it. I'm kind of interested.




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