And here lies the problems of finding causation not correlation:
- gay is not binary neither through time (people do evolve both way while getting old) neither through ‘space’ (some people are half/half, some people have some preference for love and others for sex, and so on)
- genes are not expressed linearly, and one slight expression in the womb can mean something big, or nothing or maybe something?
- social pressure about sexuality start early even though we may get better at avoiding some: blue for boys, pink for girls, boys do sports, blablabla and so on
- internal development and expression of sexuality does not happen at the same pace and at the same amplitude for everybody (some people really are asexual their whole life) and of course the familly, sister/brotherhood, socio-economical environment influence it too
So in these studies of sexuality and even worse, with the metastudies, I’m always left with the feeling that the hypothesis tested by it was broken from the start. What was the question they were trying to answer?
« Is it biologically complicated? » Ok yes.
« Do we have the tool to even make the distinction between a weak correlation due to the sample bias? » Can’t see how in this study.
What am I missing?
> - internal development and expression of sexuality does not happen at the same pace and at the same amplitude for everybody (some people really are asexual their whole life) and of course the familly, sister/brotherhood, socio-economical environment influence it too
Some people IS asexual. Asexuality it's a valid sexual orientation like being bi/pan/homo or heterosexual. It isn't lack of sexual development or sexual expression or result of family, socio-economical environment influences.
I was not suggesting it was, I was talking about expression of sexuality, both in the construct of the self and in society, that was a different part of my questioning. To be precise, it’s non-applicability in the case of asexual people, but I simplified to make my point to say it is extremely diverse and complicated and these studies are really not helping (I believe) by using a very large hammer to nail a multi-dimensional non-euclidian nail.
Appreciate the correction on the grammar though and I knew that resource already but it’s always helpful to reread :-)
I was trying to point that a person can't become asexual (on the same way that no body can change is sexual orientation). Asexuals are born asexuals. Like a homosexual is born homosexual, etc.
- gay is not binary neither through time (people do evolve both way while getting old) neither through ‘space’ (some people are half/half, some people have some preference for love and others for sex, and so on)
- genes are not expressed linearly, and one slight expression in the womb can mean something big, or nothing or maybe something?
- social pressure about sexuality start early even though we may get better at avoiding some: blue for boys, pink for girls, boys do sports, blablabla and so on
- internal development and expression of sexuality does not happen at the same pace and at the same amplitude for everybody (some people really are asexual their whole life) and of course the familly, sister/brotherhood, socio-economical environment influence it too
So in these studies of sexuality and even worse, with the metastudies, I’m always left with the feeling that the hypothesis tested by it was broken from the start. What was the question they were trying to answer? « Is it biologically complicated? » Ok yes. « Do we have the tool to even make the distinction between a weak correlation due to the sample bias? » Can’t see how in this study. What am I missing?