If your analysis is correct, you should be able to explain a scenario under which, given Google's experiment, Bing's result for "hiybbprqag" came from somewhere other than Google.

What is that scenario?

It came from the Bing toolbar tracking the user browsing. Yes, obviously "hiybbprqag" came from Google. But that's because they only tested it on Google.

They never tested the fact that it could have come from any other website as well. Thus, they can't conclude that Bing is copying Google or whether its copying the user's browsing behavior.

> Yes, obviously "hiybbprqag" came from Google.

That's all Google is saying.

> They never tested the fact that it could have come from any other website as well.

It doesn't matter, Google is only complaining about what Bing has copied from Google. What Bing copies from other sites is between them and the other site.

Exactly. They never did any testing designed to specifically not have the result show in Bing.

Which means they do not know the boundaries of their problem. What part of googles argument is countered by it though?

It means that they have falsely arrived at a conclusion due to positive bias. They might be right, but they haven't proven it sufficiently.

The inverse of the conclusions of their experiment are also incorrectly assumed (Google results, using IE8/Bing toolbar, make Bing results != Bing results, when using the IE8/Bing toolbar, are from Google).