This isn't just using the axioms of geometry, though, it's trying to prove the Pythagorean theorem using the Pythagorean theorem as an axiom. Hence circularity.
no, not exactly. the euclidean norm can be defined to fulfill a couple basic properties or equations (like composibility, or schwarz' inequality, but I don't recall exactly), and it's pure coincidence, if you will, that the norm is equal to the root mean square. That's not circular reasoning.
The name euclidean norm implies that the geometric angle (no pun intended) was the motivation, but what's really central is a question of epistemology. There's not much of a point to prescribe a certain approach over another, without a good argument.
