I guess the OP is just making an unrelated comment, because it almost sounds like he thinks that a hostile bid is evidence that the US has Ukraine-levels of corruption. Leaving aside the odd time period (Ukraine was much less corrupt pre-war than it was pre-Maidan, not to speak of its other more corrupt neighbor), the fact that hostile bids have been around for a long time in the US is good evidence to suggest that they don't indicate the level of corruption implied by OP. If OP made the same comment under a post about verb conjugation, wouldn't that seem odd to you too?

Or maybe they just happened to make an off-topic comment that had nothing to do with the hostile takeover.

You've completely missed the point. It's not that there's a hostile bid, it's the conditions of this particular hostile bid pointing to corruption.